given that 1 timothy 3:2 says that a Bishop must be the husband of one wife, is it appropriate for single, divorced, or remarried men (or women) to be allowed to be a part of the ordained ministry? Why or why not?
I've always interpeted 'husband of one wife" to mean married to one wife as apposed to two or more wives, ie not polygamy- the practise of having more than one mother in law.
That's an interesting take AA. Was polygamy popular in the roman empire at Paul's time? This made me think: Is the admonition in 1 timothy stand alone, or does it have a logical connection to Christ's condemnation of divorxe in the Sermon on the mount? Should that color how we interpret 1 timothy 2:3?
I have no idea how popular polygamy was at this time, but maybe some were enticed to follow the example of Saul and Soloman. Maybe they thought if polygamy is good enough for a psalmist its good enough for me.