Does anyone know why the Lord's Prayer was moved from the beginning to being closer toward the end of the Daily Office routine? I noticed that the 1786 and the 1928 have it pretty much at the beginning following the confession, but the 1979 has it near the end of the Daily Office.
I will not claim to be an expert on the '79, but my hypothesis is summed up in Shepherd's commentary on the Prayer Book (admittedly, a work based on the '28: "It will be observed that in other services in the Prayer Book the Lord's Prayer is used in a climactic, rather than merely preparatory, position." For example, in the Holy Communion service, the option exists to begin the service with the Lord's Prayer but have you ever seen it done? Rather, the customary usage has come to place it after the priest says the prayers of consecration at the altar and before 'Humble Access.' Another factor is the way a parishes schedule has changed through the years. Few parishes have a robust schedule of daily offices. Fewer still use the Litany with any regularity. And when was the last time the primary Sunday service was the Morning Prayer followed only by Antecommunion? Some parishes may offer Morning Prayer immediately before the communion service (that is my Abp.'s preference) but most in my area have a two Mass schedule: Low Mass early and Choral, or High Mass, late. So the rythym that most have come to expect from their parish's slate of services is different than at the time the older prayer books were published.
So in essence the Lord's Prayer was moved so that the daily office flows more like the communion service? I guess that makes sense. I'm new to the Anglican faith and to doing the Daily Office. After looking over these Prayer Books(1786, 1928, 1979) I was confused why it suddenly changed. So thank you for answering my question.
About The Lords Prayer, any ideas as to why Catholics omit "...for thine is the kingdom...."etc when reciting it?